Eastern Europe and France in the 18th century?

During the eighteeth century, the lower and middle classes of eastern Europe suffered far more injustice and enjoyed less prosperity than those in France. Why, then, didn't a revolution occur in eastern Europe at this time?

I would just like some input to help me more understand how to answer this question. Just ideas I in no way want this to be answered as an essay.
Thank you.

Frenchies at the time thought it would spread to other countries. For one thing those countries were smaller and the gov't had more control than did France which had a weak and impoverished govt at the time it fell.

The revolution in france didnt really help the poor or the middle class much either. England was much better off than pre or post revolution france.

A less coherent and obviously entitled ruling class in Eastern Europe. Paris reached a level of polarization so bad that on the one hand you had a giant open burial ground in what is now Les Halles, and less than a mile away the Louvre, which was then the Royal Palace (along with Versailles outside of town). The Louvre was and is the world's largest palace, where for instance, Louis XV sometimes filled the hallways with trees and deer so he could hunt indoors on horseback during the winter! No wonder he said, "Apres moi, le deluge." ("After me, the flood.") And so it was -- a flood: of blood.

Modern parallels? Leona Helmsley and Marie Antoinette could've come out of the same egg; and the American middle-class, well...I remember when there was one, that's all.

There were some major revolts in Eastern Europe in the late 18th century, the biggest being Pugachev's Rebellion in Russia in 1773-1775 and Tadeusz Kościuszko uprising in Poland/Lithuania in 1794.

Both failed to achieve their immediate goals at the time, but they planted seeds for future movements.